I'm trying to give a counter example in an argument I am making, and it boils down to showing that for any nonzero $\alpha\in\mathbb{C}$ and for any $N\in\mathbb{Z}$, there are points $z\in S^1$ so that
$$\alpha z^N - i\alpha z^{N-1}\notin\mathbb{R}$$
I'm sure there's a slick argument by way of contradiction with some complex analysis, but I was hoping for a solution in terms of $\alpha$ and $N$
Alt.hint: by homogeneity in $\,\alpha\,$, it is enough to prove the proposition for $\,|\alpha|=1\,$.
If $\,n=1\,$ then (at least) one of $\,z=1\,$ or $\,z=-1\,$ must satisfy $\,\alpha(z-i) \not\in\mathbb{R}\,$.
Otherwise, if $\,\alpha \in \{\pm1, \pm i\}\,$ then $\,z=1\,$ satisfies $\,\alpha - i\alpha \not\in \mathbb{R}\,$.
Otherwise, any of the $\,n-1\,$ solutions to $\,z^{n-1} = \overline \alpha\,$ satisfies: $$\alpha z^n - i\alpha z^{n-1}=|\alpha|^2 z - i|\alpha|^2 = z-i$$ Since $\,|z|=1\,$ it follows that $\,\operatorname{Im}(z) = i \iff z=i\,$, but that gives $\,\overline \alpha = i^{n-1} \in \{\pm1, \pm i\}\,$, which has been handled separately at the previous step. Therefore $\,\operatorname{Im}(z) \ne i\,$, so $\,z-i \not\in\mathbb{R}\,$.