So the question is to state without proof $a_{n}$ and $b_{n}$ such that $a_{n}$ converges, $b_{n}$ is unbounded and $a_{n}b_{n}$ converges.
I chose $a_{n} = \frac{1}{n}$ and $b_{n} = (-1)^n$
Then $a_{n}b_{n} = \frac{(-1)^n}{n}$
Am I correct?
So the question is to state without proof $a_{n}$ and $b_{n}$ such that $a_{n}$ converges, $b_{n}$ is unbounded and $a_{n}b_{n}$ converges.
I chose $a_{n} = \frac{1}{n}$ and $b_{n} = (-1)^n$
Then $a_{n}b_{n} = \frac{(-1)^n}{n}$
Am I correct?
From the comments, I now know that I made a silly error in choosing $b_{n} = (-1)^n$ which is bounded rather than unbounded, since $|b_{n}|=1$. Therefore instead choosing $a_{n}=\frac{1}{n^2}$ and $b_{n} = n$ would satisfy the original question, since $a_n b_n = \frac{1}{n}$ which converges.