I was reading up on this: Find the number of normal subgroups of $A_4$.
If $H$ has a $3$-cycle, say $(123)$, then $H$ has its inverse $(132)$ thefore it also has $(124) = (324)(132)(324)^{-1}$, Thus $H \supseteq \langle (123),(124) \rangle = A_4$ (why?). Conclusion $H = A_4$.
How can we claim the above without loss of generality? How can we be sure that for some other choice of $3$-cycles we get the same result?
Let's say $H$ contains a $3$-cycle $(abc)$ where $d$ is the element left out. Then, $H$ has its inverse, $(acb)$, so it also has $(abd)=(cbd)(acb)(cbd)^{-1}$. Thus, $H \supseteq \langle (abc), (abd) \rangle=A_4$. We now conclude that $H=A_4$.
I'm not sure if this is how permutations work since I'm not really good with permutations, but I'm guessing this is how they assumed loss of generality.