Consider the differential operator $T:P3(R)→P3(R)$ given by
$T(p(x))=2p′(x)−2p′′(x)+2p′′′(x)$
Find an ordered basis $F$ for $P3(R)$ such that $T$ acts like a shift operator with respect to $F$, i.e.
$M^{F}_{F} (P)$ = \begin{pmatrix}0&0&0&0\\1&0&0&0\\0&1&0&0\\0&0&1&0\end{pmatrix}
Basis $F$ = {$ . . . $}
Enter your basis as polynomials separated by comma: e.g. $x2,2x+1,2$
So, I have a few similar questions like that and don't know how to solve them can someone help me with it.
I assume $R$ is the field of real numbers, or at least a ring with unity, and $P^3(R)$ is the vectorspace of polynomials with coefficients in $R$ of degree atmost 3.
You can identify $P^3(R)$ with $R^4$ via $$p(x) = ax^3 + bx^2 +cx +d \mapsto \begin{pmatrix} a \\ b \\c \\ d \end{pmatrix}$$ Under this identification the standard basis of $R^4$ corresponds to the polynomials $x^3, x^2, x ,1$. Problems like this can usually be treated by considering an isomorphism of this kind and reducing it to linear algebra on $R^n$ for some $n$.
In the ordered basis $F = (x^3, x^2, x, 1)$ the map $p(x) \mapsto p'(x)$ can be identified with the matrix $$D = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 3 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 2 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}$$.
Your operator $T$ is equal to $$T = 2 D - 2D^2 + 2 D^3.$$ Now you just need to find a basis in which $T$ is of the desired form.
Can you handle it from here on?
Edit
Plugging in the numbers we get the matrix $$T = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 6 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ -12 & 4 & 0 & 0 \\ 12 & -4 & 2 & 0 \end{pmatrix}$$
Let $F=(f_1,f_2,f_3,f_4)$ be a basis such that $T$ is as requested. Given the form of $T$ in this basis we know that under $T$ $f_1$ gets mapped to $f_2$, $f_2$ gets mapped to $f_3$, $f_3$ to $f_4$ and $f_4$ itself is in the kernel of $T$ (i.e $Tf_4 = 0$). This translates to a set of equations:
We start by choosing $f_1 = (1,1,1,1)^T$, as there are no constraints on $f_1$ (except that it has to be linearly independent of the other basis elements of course). This yields $$f_2 = Tf_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 6 \\ -8 \\ 10\end{pmatrix}, ~~f_3 = Tf_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 24 \\ -40\end{pmatrix} ~~ \text{and} ~~f_4 = Tf_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 0 \\ 48\end{pmatrix}$$
Now we have to check whether the fourth condition holds. The kernel of $T$ is the linear span of the vector $(0, 0 , 0, 1)^T$, which means that $f_4$ has to be of the form $f_4 = (0, 0 , 0, \lambda)^T$ for some $\lambda \in R$. Clearly $f_4 \in \mathrm{ker}(T)$ and since $f_1$ up to $f_4$ are linearly independent we have found our basis. All that is left to do, is translating these vectors back to polynomials e.g. $f_1 = (1,1,1,1)^T$ corresponds to $x^3 + x^2 +x + 1$. Note that you can start with any polynomial of degree 3 you like.