Find the equation of the tangent line to $\sin^{-1}(x) + \sin^{-1}(y) = \frac{\pi}{6}$ at the point $(0,\frac{1}{2})$
This is in the context of learning implicit differentiation.
First, I apply $\frac{dy}{dx}$ operator to both sides of the equation yielding:
$-\sin^{-2}(x) - \sin^{-1}(y)\frac{dy}{dx} = 0$
Second, I want to solve for $\frac{dy}{dx}$.
$\frac{dy}{dx} = -\sin^{-2}(x)\sin(y)$.
Third, I substitute the point $(0,\frac{1}{2})$ into the above equation to find the slope of the tangent line.
$\frac{dy}{dx}\mid_{(0,\frac{1}{2})} = -\sin^{-2}(0)\sin(\frac{1}{2}) = -0.479$
Finally, I substitute the slope into the point-slope equation of the line to obtain
$y = -0.479x + 0.2395$
Is this correct?
Notice that $\frac{d}{dx}\arcsin(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}$. This can be seen because, by definition of an inverse function, $\sin(\arcsin(x)) =x$. So differentiating both sides gives $$ 1 = \frac{d}{dx}x =\frac{d}{dx}\sin(\arcsin(x)) \overset{\color{purple}{\text{Chain rule}}}{=} \cos(\arcsin(x))\frac{d}{dx}\arcsin(x) =\underbrace{\sqrt{1 - \color{blue}{\sin^2(\arcsin(x)}}}_{\sqrt{1 -\color{blue}{x^2}}}\frac{d}{dx}\arcsin(x) $$ where on the last step we use the fact that $\sin^2(x) +\cos^2(x) = 1$ to write $\cos(x) = \sqrt{1 - \sin^2(x)}$.
With this established, implicitly differentiating $\sin^{-1}(x) + \sin^{-1}(y) = \frac{\pi}{6}$ with respect to $x$ gives $$ \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-y^2}} \frac{dy}{dx} =0 \implies \frac{dy}{dx} = -\sqrt{\frac{1-y^2}{1-x^2}} $$ So substituting your point $\left(\color{purple}{x}, \color{blue}{y}\right) =\left(\color{purple}{0}, \color{blue}{\frac{1}{2}}\right)$ gives $$ \frac{dy}{dx} = -\sqrt{\frac{1-\left( \color{blue}{\frac{1}{2}}\right)^2}{1-\left( \color{purple}{0}\right)^2}} = \color{green}{-\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}} $$ And by the slope-intercept form of a line, the desired tangent line is $$ \boxed{y = \color{green}{-\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}}x + \color{blue}{\frac{1}{2}}} $$