Statement: If $a$, $b$ and $b'$ are integers and $a>b>b'>0$, then the remainder when $a$ is divided by $b$ is less than the remainder when a is divided by $b'$.
Proof: Assume $a,b, b'$ are integers and $a>b>b'>0$. By the Division Algorithm, the remainder when $a$ is divided by $b$ is the unique integer $r$ such that $a=bq+r$ and $0 \le r<b$. Hence $b q=a-r$ and since $r<b, b<a$ then $r<a$. That is, $a-r>0$. Since $b>0$, so $q>0$. Next, we use the Division Algorithm (DA) then we have $a=b'q+r'$ where $0 \le r<b'$. Equating the two expressions for $a$ gives $bq+r=b'q+r'$. This can be rearranged to give $q(b-b')=r'-r$. Finally $b-b'>0$ and $q>0$ so $r'-r>0$. That is $r'>r$.
However, I am told this is erroneous proof and not sure where the fundamental error is in the argument. I thought it might have to do with the assumption that $b-b'>0$ and $r'-r>0$ since it could be negative too. But not sure if that's right. Can anyone help please? Thanks in advance
You are assuming that $q$ is the same in both cases. And the claimed result is patently wrong, consider e.g. $a = 12$, $b = 5$, $b' = 3 < b$, with $r = 2$ and $r' = 0$.