Let $1\leqslant p<q\leqslant\infty.$ I know then that $L^{q}\left(\mathbb{R}\right)\subsetneq L^{p}\left(\mathbb{R}\right)$. How do I show that it is a proper subgroup? In other words, I am trying to find a function $f\in L^{p}\left(\mathbb{R}\right)\backslash L^{q}\left(\mathbb{R}\right)$.
Any help would be appreciated.
The following example works: \begin{equation} f(x) = \left\{ \begin{array}{ll} \dfrac{1}{x^{1/q}} & \text{if $ x \in (0,1] $}; \\ 0 & \text{elsewhere}. \end{array} \right. \end{equation}