How to find an arithmetic function $f$, when the summatory function $F$ of $f$ is given by
$F(n)=\begin{cases} 1 & \mathrm{if}\ n \mathrm{\ is \ a \ square \ number} \\ 0 & \mathrm{otherwise} \end{cases}$
My idea was to use the Möbius inversion formula:
Let $n$ be a square number. By definiton $F(n)=\sum \limits_{d \vert n}f(d)$, so
$f(n)=\sum \limits_{d \vert n}F(d)\mu(\frac{n}{d})=\sum \limits_{d \vert n}\sum \limits_{d \vert d}f(d)\mu(\frac{n}{d})=\sum \limits_{d \vert d}\sum \limits_{d \vert n}f(d)\mu(\frac{n}{d})$
Since $\sum \limits_{d \vert n}f(d)=1$, I got
$f(n)=\mu(\frac{n}{d})$, so $f=\mu$.
But if I try $F(4)=\sum \limits_{d \vert 4}\mu(d)$, I don't get $1$ as a result.
Where is my mistake and how to show it right?
Phicar has explained what ought to be done; I’ll explain where your calculations go astray.
The second equality in the chain of equalities is wrong: you can’t use $d$ as the index of summation on the inner sum when it is already in use as the index of summation on the outer sum. You need a different index of summation, e.g., $d'$:
$$\sum_{d\mid n}F(d)\mu\left(\frac{n}d\right)=\sum_{d\mid n}\sum_{d'\mid d}f(d')\mu\left(\frac{n}d\right)\;.$$
It is possible to reverse the order of summation, but it’s a bit tricky. Each value of $d'$ is a divisor of a divisor of $n$, so the indices $d'$ range over the divisors of $n$, and the outer summation will therefore have the form $\sum_{d'\mid n}$. The double summation is over all pairs $\langle d',d\rangle$ such that $d'\mid d\mid n$, so for each $d'$ in what will now be the outer summation we must consider every $d$ such that $d'\mid d\mid n$. Thus,
$$\begin{align*} \sum_{d\mid n}\sum_{d'\mid d}f(d')\mu\left(\frac{n}d\right)&=\sum_{d'\mid n}\sum_{d'\mid d\mid n}f(d')\mu\left(\frac{n}d\right)\\ &=\sum_{d'\mid n}f(d')\sum_{d'\mid d\mid n}\mu\left(\frac{n}d\right)\\ &=\sum_{d'\mid n}f(d')\sum_{d''\mid\frac{n}{d'}}\mu\left(\frac{n/d'}{d''}\right)\;, \end{align*}$$
where in the last step $d''=\frac{d}{d'}$. And
$$\sum_{d''\mid\frac{n}{d'}}\mu\left(\frac{n/d'}{d''}\right)=\begin{cases} 1,&\text{if }\frac{n}{d'}=1\\ 0,&\text{otherwise,} \end{cases}$$
so
$$\sum_{d'\mid n}f(d')\sum_{d''\mid\frac{n}{d'}}\mu\left(\frac{n/d'}{d''}\right)=f(n)\;,$$
as it should: the only non-zero term in the outer summation is the $d'=n$ term.