I'm reading Vern Paulsen's notes.
I don't know how can I show $\Bbb R^*/\Bbb R^+$ and $\Bbb Z_2$ are isomorphic because I'm not sure about operation of $\Bbb R^*/\Bbb R^+$. Should I consider it as multiplicative group while $\Bbb Z_2$ is additive group?
In addition I appreciate any help or hint for constructing a bijective homomorphism between them.
Thanks!
Consider the map $\operatorname{sgn}\colon \mathbb{R}^*\to \{-1,1\}^\times$; note that $\{-1,1\}^\times$ is a group as it is finite and closed under multiplication; by the rule of signs, $\operatorname{sgn}(xy)=\operatorname{sgn}(x)\operatorname{sgn}(y)$, and thence $\operatorname{sgn}$ is a group homomorphism; moreover, $\operatorname{sgn}$ is surjective; then (first homomorphism theorem), $\mathbb{R}^*/\operatorname{ker}(\operatorname{sgn})\cong \{-1,1\}^\times$. Now, $\operatorname{ker}(\operatorname{sgn})=\{x\in \mathbb{R}^*\mid\operatorname{sgn}(x)=1\}=\mathbb{R}_{>0}$ and $\{-1,1\}^\times \cong \mathbb{Z}_2$ (*), and finally $\mathbb{R}^*/\mathbb{R}_{>0}\cong \mathbb{Z}_2$.
(*) $\varphi\colon \mathbb{Z}_2\to \{-1,1\}^\times$, defined by $0\mapsto 1$ and $1\mapsto -1$ is an isomorphism.