Let $m$ be a positive integer. Let $a,b$ be integers with $0 \leq a,b < m$, $a,b$ not both zero, $\gcd(a,b,m)=1$.
Do there necessarily exist integers $x,y$ such that
$x \equiv a \pmod{m}$
$y \equiv b \pmod{m}$
$(x,y)=1$?
Equivalently, are there integers $c,d,k,l$ such that $$ c(a+mk) + d(b+ml)=1? $$
EDIT: Consider two refinements.
1. What conditions on $a,b$ are necessary?
2. What if $m$ is prime?
Let $t$ be the product of all the primes dividing $b$ but not $a$ (if there are no such primes then $t$ is the empty product which, by convention, is $1$). Let $x=a+tm$, $y=b$. Then clearly $x\equiv a\pmod m$, and $y\equiv b\pmod m$, so we just have to check that $\gcd(x,y)=1$.
Let $p$ divide $y$. If $p$ also divides $a$, then it doesn't divide $t$, by the construction of $t$, and it doesn't divide $m$, since $\gcd(a,b,m)=1$, so it doesn't divide $tm$, so it doesn't divide $x=a+tm$. If $p$ doesn't divide $a$, then it does divide $t$ (by construction of $t$), so it divides $tm$, so again it doesn't divide $x=a+tm$. So no prime dividing $y$ divides $x$, so $\gcd(x,y)=1$.
Historical note: Andrzej Schinzel showed me this idea in 1976.