I need to basically show that the slope is $0$ when $\epsilon = kT$
$f(\epsilon)=\left(\frac{8 \pi}{m}\right)\left(\frac{m}{2 \pi kT}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}\epsilon e^{\frac{-\epsilon}{kT}}$
So I broke the function up into two parts and used the product rule:
$f(\epsilon)=\left(\frac{8 \pi}{m}\right)\left(\frac{m}{2 \pi kT}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}\epsilon$
$f'(\epsilon)=\left(\frac{8 \pi}{m}\right)\left(\frac{m}{2 \pi kT}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}$
$g(\epsilon)=e^{\frac{-\epsilon}{kT}}$
$g'(\epsilon)=e^{\frac{-\epsilon}{kT}}\left(\frac{-kT+\epsilon}{\left(kT\right)^2}\right)$
Putting it together and solving:
$fg'+gf'$
I got:
$f'(\epsilon)=e^\frac{-\epsilon}{kT}\left(\frac{8 \pi}{m}\right)\left(\frac{m}{2 \pi kT}\right)^\frac{3}{2}\left[\epsilon\left(\frac{-kT+\epsilon}{\left(kT\right)^2}\right)+1\right]$
But plugging in $f'(kT)$ does not give me $0$.
Do you guys see where I did anything wrong?
$$g'(\epsilon)=-\dfrac{1}{kT}g(\epsilon)$$