Let $T:l^\infty\rightarrow l^\infty$ be defined by $(x_1,x_2, \dots)\mapsto (x_2,x_3,\dots)$.
I have seen a claim without justification that $\|T\|=1$, but I am not convinced. I know that
$\|T\| = \sup_{{\|x\|=1}}\|Tx\|$ . If $\|x\|=1$ then surely $\|Tx\|\le 1$. So
$$\|T\| = \sup\limits_{\|x\|=1}\|Tx\|\le 1.$$
I don't see how it can be claimed that $\|T\| = 1$
Is it true or I am missing something?
$||T||=\sup_{||x||=1} ||Tx||$.
Since $||x||=1\implies \sup \{|x_1|,|x_2|,\ldots |x_n|,\ldots\}=1$.
Note that $A\subset B\implies \sup A\le \sup B$.
So $||Tx||=\sup \{|x_2|,|x_3|,\ldots |x_n|,\ldots\}\le \sup \{|x_1|,|x_2|,\ldots |x_n|,\ldots\}=1\implies ||T||\le1$
Now ,Take $x_0=(1,1,1,\ldots,1)$ , then $Tx_0=(1,1,1,\ldots,1)\implies ||T||\ge 1 $
Combining $||T||=1$.