In the problem below, I got the partial fraction decomposition but don't know how to get the answer:
$$\sum^\infty_{k=1}{\frac{1}{k(k+2)}}$$
I found the answer, using an online calculator, to be $\frac{3}{4}$.
When I did the partial fraction decomposition I got:
$$\sum^\infty_{k=1}\frac{1}{2k}-\frac{1}{2(k+2)}$$
Then I got the sum of
$$\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)+\dotsi-\frac{1}{2(n+2)}$$
Why does this equal $\frac{3}{4}$ and not $\frac{1}{2}$?
We have that
$$\sum^\infty_{k=1}{\frac{1}{k(k+2)}}=\sum^\infty_{k=1}\frac12\left({\frac{1}{k}}-{\frac{1}{k+2}}\right)=\frac12\left(1-\frac13+\frac12-\frac14+\frac13-\frac15+\ldots\right)=\frac12\left(\frac32\right)$$