Sorry for the weird/confusing notation, but the course I'm doing right now is using this..
The question is:
Recall that that projection of $y$ onto a vector subspace $V$ of $\Omega$ is a vector $\hat{y}\in V$ such that $(y-\hat{y})$ is orthogonal to all vectors in $V$. In particular, if the vectors $v_1,\ldots,v_k$ span the whole vector space $V$, then
$$(y-\hat{y})^T v_i = 0$$
for all $i$.
Let $y = (7,0,2)^T$ and $v_1 = (1,1,1)^T,v_2 = (2,-1,-1)^T$. Find $\hat{y}$.
So using that the dot product is equal to zero for all $i$, I got the following equations
(let $\hat{y} = (\hat{y_1},\hat{y_2},\hat{y_3})^T$)
$$\hat{y_1} + \hat{y_2} + \hat{y_3} = 9 \\ \hat{2y_1} - \hat{y_2} - \hat{y_3} = 12$$
I can reduce this, but it seems that there's infinite solutions... did I misunderstand the problem?
You're missing the fact that $\hat y$ needs to be an element of the subspace; this additional piece of information needs to be accounted for somehow.
One way to approach this is to instead write $\hat y$ as $$ \hat y = x_1 v_1 + x_2 v_2 $$ for scalars $x_1,x_2$. From there, setting those same dot-products equal to zero gives you two equations that can be solved for $x_1$ and $x_2$.