I was recently reading a proof in which the following property is used (and left as an exercise that I could not prove so far). Here is exactly how it is stated.
Let $G$ be a finite group. Suppose it has exactly one maximal subgroup. Then $G$ is cyclic.
Now, does this mean exactly one conjugacy class of maximal subgroups? If it really means exactly one maximal subgroup, then what can we say about a finite group that possesses exactly one class of (at least two) maximal subgroups that are all conjugate to each other?
If $G$ has only one conjugacy class of maximal subgroup, $M$, and is not itself a $p$-group, then for every prime $p$, $M$ contains a Sylow $p$-subgroup $P$ of $G$. But then by Lagrange, $|M|$ has order divisible by every prime power dividing $|G|$, so $|M|$ is a multiple of $|G|$. Since $|M| \leq |G|$, one must have $|M| = |G|$ and $M = G$, a contradiction. If $G$ is a $p$-group and one conjugacy class of maximal subgroup, then every maximal subgroup is normal, and so $G$ must have exactly one maximal subgroup, and so is cyclic as before.
In particular, every finite group has at least two classes of maximal subgroups. The non-abelian group of order 6 has exactly two classes.
It is not too uncommon for a finite group to have only one class of maximal subgroup that is not normal, and one that is normal (so two classes total): every finite primitive solvable group is like this. Depending on your definition, it might just be by definition. But there are a few definitions that make it sound exciting.