For a finitely generated group $G$, is it always the case that if two elements $g_1, g_2$ have the same order then there is an automorphism that sends one to the other (i.e. $\phi$ such that $\phi(g_1)=g_2$)?
I can't seem to prove it, but playing around with several groups, abelian or not (to include $D_3$; a cyclic group of prime order and $\mathbb{Z}_4$), I'm unable to refute this.
How could one go about proving this? (assuming indeed it can be proven).
Take $G=S_3\times\mathbb{Z_2}$. It contains an element of order $2$ which is in the center, and an element of order $2$ not in the center. So clearly there is no automorphism which maps one of these elements to the other one.