Let $T:V\to W$ be a linear map, define $S:V/\ker(T) \to \text{Im}(T)$ as $S(v+\ker(T))=T(v)$. Show that $S$ defines an isomorphism.
My professor gave us the proof where it involves showing $S$ is well-defined, linear, injective and surjective one by one. Am I right in thinking both injectivity and subjectivity are not required as a linear map that is injective must be also surjective by Rank-Nullity. Will this in turn make this proof slightly redundant?
(Also a rookie question, do we always need to check well-definedness when defining a new map?)
That is not true, a linear map can be injective without being surjective. For example, consider $f:\Bbb{R}^2 \rightarrow \Bbb{R}^3$ given by $$f(\mathbf{x})=\begin{bmatrix}1&0\\0&1\\0&0\end{bmatrix}\mathbf{x}.$$ Then $f$ is linear, injective (because rank is $2$) but definitely not surjective (e.g. $\begin{bmatrix}0\\0\\1\end{bmatrix}$ is not in the range).
For your second question, to check well-definedness. It is always important to make sure that the function is well-defined and it becomes even more important when the domain you are dealing with has multiple representations of the same object (e.g. set of equivalence classes).