I want to determine whether a new technique for sampling blood cultures causes less contamination of the blood cultures. The group in which i applied the new technique is called the intervention group and the the control is the normal technique.
Exactly what they did in this paper: https://www.clinicalmicrobiologyandinfection.com/article/S1198-743X(19)30490-2/fulltext#secsectitle0070
The results are summarized in the following table:
Which means that 20/400 in the control group were contaminated and 6/356 were contaminated in the intervention group.
My goals is to determine using Fisher's exact test the relative risk for isolation of a contamination.
In the paper i cited they wrote:
Can someone help me understand how they got this p-value and confidence interval?
All i got so far is applying the Fisher's exact test on the able i showed resulting in p-value: $0.0067$