For a closed ball $\overline{B_R(0)}\subset \mathbb{R}^n$ with $R>0$ we have $f\in C^0(\overline{B_R(0)},\mathbb{R}^n)$ with $\langle x,f(x) \rangle\leq \langle x,x \rangle$ for $x \in \partial \overline{B_R(0)}$. Show that $f$ has fixed point.
My guess (I'm very sceptical): $f$ continuous implies that Im$(f)$ is compact. \begin{align} \text{Im}(f)\subset \overline{B_{R_i}(0)} \;\; \text{for} \;\; R_i\geq\!\!\max_{x\in \overline{B_R(0)}}\! ||f(x)||. \end{align} If $R>R_i$ I'm done, since I can use Brouwer fixed point theorem. For $R<R_i$ define $g_i: \mathbb{R}^n\rightarrow \mathbb{R}^n, x\mapsto \frac{R}{R_i} x$, so that $g_i\circ f(\overline{B_{R_i}(0)})\subset \overline{B_{R_i}(0)}$ and by Brouwers theorem there exists $x_0$ so that $g_i\circ f(x_0)=x_0$, hence there exists $x_0$ so that $f(x_0)=\frac{R_i}{R}x_0$ is true. But since $R_i$ can chosen arbitrary large, $x_0$ has to be $0$.
Does it work?
Hint: Try using the following well-known result in fixed point theory:
What should $E$, $C$, $p$ and $U$ be in your example? Is $f$ compact (duh)? After answering these questions, all you have to do is show that $(2)$ does not apply.