Is $|g'(x)|<1\ \forall x\in(a,b)$ is one of the hypothesis of the Fixed-Point Theorem?
The answer is NO. Can someone please enlightened me about this? My teacher reason is this...
Note that the condition must be $|g'(x)| \leq k < 1\ \forall x\in(a,b)$. This condition is equivalent to $g'(x)\in[-k,k]\ \forall x\in(a,b)$. The condition $|g'(x)|<1\ \forall x\in(a,b)$ is equivalent to $g'(x)\in(-1,1)\ \forall x\in(a,b)$. Observe that the two conditions are not the same.
Let $K$ be an closed set and $g \in C^1(K), g(K) \subseteq K$ with $|g'(x)|<1\ \forall x\in K$. Then $g$ doesn't neccessiarily have a fixed point. Look for example at $g(x) = x+1/x$ on $[1,\infty)$. Then $|g'(x)|=1 - 1/x^2<1$ but you have no fixed point. I hope this is what you are looking for. If you can otherwise find a $\lambda$ such that $|g'(x)|<\lambda<1\ \forall x\in K$ then you can use the convergence of the geometric sum to show there is a fixed point.