It is easy to derive from $AB=-BA$ that $\mathrm{tr}(AB)=0$ since $\mathrm{tr}(AB)=\mathrm{tr}(-BA)=-\mathrm{tr}(BA)=-\mathrm{tr}(AB)$. However, I cannot get that $\mathrm{tr}(A)=\mathrm{tr}(B)=0$ without the fact that $A$ and $B$ are invertible.
My Professor suggested I use the Cayley-Hamilton Theorem. However, that just gives me a few extra conditions on the elements of $A$ and $B$, and I still can't get that their traces equal $0$.
Any ideas are greatly appreciated!
The Cayley-Hamilton theorem says that $$ A^2-\operatorname{tr}(A)A+\det(A)I=0 $$ If we multiply by $B$ on the right: $$ A^2B-\operatorname{tr}(A)AB+\det(A)B=0 $$ If we multiply by $B$ on the left: $$ BA^2-\operatorname{tr}(A)BA+\det(A)B=0 $$ Subtracting the two relations: $$ A^2B-BA^2-2\operatorname{tr}(A)AB=0 $$ On the other hand, $A^2B=AAB=-ABA=BAA=BA^2$.