Q: Let $<A_i:i\in I>$ an indexed function such that $A_i\not= \emptyset (\forall i\in I)$. Since every set has a well-ordering, $\bigcup_{i\in I}A_i$ has a well ordering $≤$. Define a function $f$ such that $dom(f)=I$ and $(\forall i\in I)(f(i)\in A_i)$. Thus, $<f(i):i\in I>$ is a choice function.
A: By the definition of the axiom of choice, we have that since $<A_i:i\in I>$ is defined as such, there is an indexed function $<x_i:i\in I>$ such that $x_i\in A_i$ for all $i\in I$. Is this not what we need? The notation is starting to confuse me quite a bit.
It appears the problem is to prove the axiom of choice by assuming every set can be well ordered. Your proof is just treading water, stating the conclusion to prove the conclusion.
Let A = $\bigcup_{i\in I}A_i.$
Well order A.
Define f:I -> A, i -> min $A_i \cap A.$
Show f is a choice problem.
Indexing can be tedious. Here is the same proof without indexing.
Let C be a collection of not empty sets.
Well order A = $\cup C.$
Show f:C -> A, X -> min $X \cap A$
is a choice function.