For any prime $p$ , consider the group $ G=\operatorname{GL}_2 (\mathbb{F}_p) $. Then which of the following are true?
$G$ has an element of order $p$
$G$ has exactly one element of order $p$
$G$ has no $p-$Sylow subgroups
Every element of order $p$ is conjugate to a matrix $ \begin{bmatrix} 1 & a \\ 0 & 1 \\ \end{bmatrix} $ , where $ a\in (\mathbb{F}_p)^* $
Since the order of the group $G$ is $p (p-1)(p^2-1) $ , clearly $G$ has $p-$Sylow subgroups of order $p $. So option 3 is false.
Also, the $p-$Sylow subgroups are cyclic so option 1 is true.
For option 2 , I chose $p=2$ and I saw there are $3$ elements of order $2$ namely $\begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \\ \end{bmatrix} $ , $\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 1 & 1 \\ \end{bmatrix} $ and $\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 \\ \end{bmatrix}$ . So option 2 is false .
For option 4 I chose $p=2$ and consider the matrix $\begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \\ \end{bmatrix} $ which is of order 2 but not conjugate to $\begin{bmatrix} 1 & a \\ 0 & 1 \\ \end{bmatrix} $ , here $a=1$ since $ (\mathbb{F}_2)^* $ contains only 1
But option 4 is correct in the answer key. Is my explanation for option 4 wrong? I don't understand how.
Any help for option 4 would be great. THANKS.
Hint: Use Sylow's theorem to conclude that 4. is true. For $p=2$, you can also check directly that the conjugate of $\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 \\ \end{bmatrix}$ by either of $\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \\ \end{bmatrix}$ and $\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 1 & 1 \\ \end{bmatrix}$ is $\begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 \\ \end{bmatrix}$.
Moreover, for 2., you should show that this is false also for $p\neq 2$. The case of $p=2$ is the only nontrivial one, of course, but you want to show that this has to be false, regardless of $p$, not that it fails for some $p$.