For all $q \in \Bbb Q$ there exists $n \in \Bbb Z$ so that $q + n = 271$.
This is true? Because both $q$ and $n$ are rational numbers and $271$ is an integer thus it's a rational number?
Also,
For all $n \in \Bbb Z$ there exists $q \in \Bbb Q$ so that $q + n = 271$.
Isn't it the same thing? One should be true and one should be false. Any help?
False.
$\Bbb Q$ is the set of rationals, i.e. fractions: $\Bbb Q = \{\ldots, -\frac 1 3,- \frac 2 2,-\frac 1 2, 0, \frac 1 2, \frac 2 2, \frac 1 3, \ldots\}$.
$\Bbb Z$ is the set of integers: $\{\ldots, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1,2,3,\ldots\}$.
Take $q = \frac 1 2$ for an easy counterexample. Generally, any $q \in \Bbb Q$ such that $q \notin \Bbb Z$ yields a counterexample to the claim.
True. It's easy to see by example why this is true, but there's a more general reason.
From the axioms of arithmetic, we know that for any $n \in \Bbb Z$ there exists an $m \in \Bbb Z$ such that $n+m = 271$. We also know that $\Bbb Z \subset \Bbb Q$, i.e. that the integers are a subset of the rationals. So when we go to pick the second integer $m$, that integer $m$ is also necessarily contained in the rationals (as $\frac m 1$).