I have a hard induction problem here that I feel completly lost on.
For every $n\ge3$ there is n different positive integer $a_1,...,a_n$ so that $\frac{1}{a_1}+\frac{1}{a_2}+...+\frac{1}{a_n}=1$.
There is only one possible solution for $n=3 $
$\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{6}=1$
for $n=4$ there is 2 possible solutions and they both start with $\frac{1}{2}$.
$\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{8}+\frac{1}{24}$ and $\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{20}$.
I think the first one is the one.
For $n=5$ there is alot of different possible solutions but it have to start with at least $\frac 13$
I think it have to start with $\frac 12+\frac13$ and then be some kind of sum answer for the last $\frac16$ based on $n$. But I don't know
I have tried finding a pattern but not getting anywhere anymore. Any tips on how to tackle a problem like this?
Hint: using the identity $\displaystyle\;\frac{1}{k}=\frac{1}{k+1}+ \frac{1}{k(k+1)}\,$ and repeated halving:
$\displaystyle\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}=1 \;\;\to\;\; \frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{6}=1$
$\displaystyle\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{4}=1 \;\;\to\;\; \frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{20}=1$
$\displaystyle \displaystyle\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{8}+\frac{1}{8}=1 \;\;\to\;\; \ldots$