Enderton's proof goes like below;
Let B be any infinite set of cardinality $\kappa$.
Let $H=${$f|f=$$\emptyset$ or $f: A×A-A$ is a bijection for some A $\subseteq B$}
Then he showed that any chain in H has upper bound in H. Hence H has a maximal element, $f_o$. That's fine I have no problem upto this.
But then he tells that the maximal element $f_o$$:A_o×A_o$ $-A_o$ is a bijection, for some $A_o$ $\subseteq B$. The maximal element $f_o$ might not be a bijection from $B×B$ onto $B$, instead for big enough subset $A_o$ $\subseteq B$, $f_o$$:A_o×A_o$ $-A_o$ is a bijection. I am unable to comprehend, why should the transfinite process stop at some $A_o$ $\subseteq B$ instead taking whole B. Can someone explain this point with an expository explanation? (Edit: Here I mainly wanted to get an intuition that how the transfinite recursion process will work in general rather than a formal proof)
My guess: For $B=\omega +2$, we might be stop at $A_o=\omega$. But I don't have any insight into the process. Why might we stop at $A_o$.
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There is similar question already here.
show that for an infinite cardinal $k$, $k + k = k$
I understand the Enderton's proof, as well as Asaf's proof. But I am unable to understand the point in Asaf's proof(link of the Asaf's proof given above)/the same point in Enderton's proof that "Why $(K,f)$ might not be a maximal element of the partial order mentioned in the Asaf's proof?"
It would be best, if I asked this in comment below Asaf's answer but I don't have enough reputation to comment. So if someone explain this to me, I will be thankful.
Note: This answer focuses on the sum of cardinals case, the product case is slightly different but the same example works, and is left as an exercise.
Letting $K=\mathbb{N}$. Applying Zorn’s lemma we get the existence of a maximal element under that order, all Zorn’s lemma says is that a maximal element exists and nothing more, the maximal element could for example be $(\mathbb{N},f)$ but it could also be $(\mathbb{N}-\{0\},g)$(Checking this is a maximal element is not hard), so Zorn’s lemma gives no guarantee that the maximal element is $(K,f)$. Luckily, by the way the order is constructed it is not hard to prove that the maximal element must be of the form $(K-F, h)$ where $F$ is some finite set.
Edit: You don't seem to be convinced that $(\mathbb{N}-\{0\}, g)$ where, $g: \mathbb{N}-\{0\} \to 2\times (\mathbb{N}-\{0\})$ is a bijection, is a maximal element. To prove that it is maximal element note that there can not exist a bijection $f:\mathbb{N}\to2\times \mathbb{N}$ extending $g$, because $2\times\mathbb{N}$ has two more elements than $2\times(\mathbb{N}-\{0\}$), while $\mathbb{N}$ has only one more element than $\mathbb{N}-\{0\}$.