I was thinking on this problem: suppose, for a prime $p$ and integers $a,b$, we have
$$p = (a-b)(a+b)$$
This implies immediately that $p \mid (a-b)$ or $p \mid (a+b)$. Then, since $p$ is prime and thus its only factors are $1$ and itself, this means $a+b = p$ and $a-b = 1$.
From that, $a=b+1.$ It's easy to see that, say, if $a$ ends in $3$ and $b$ ends in $2$, or if $a$ ends in $8$ and $b$ ends in $7$, that do not necessarily satisfy the original equation, just $a=b+1$. They don't necessarily satisfy $a+b=p$, however.
So my question is:
For integers $a,b$ and prime $p$, are there infinitely many solutions to the equation below? $$p = (a-b)(a+b)$$
If $(a+b)(a-b) = p$ than either $(a+b) = 1$ or $(a-b) = 1$. Say $(a-b) = 1$, so $b = a-1$. Then we have $2a-1=p$, which has infinitely many solutions, namely $a=\frac{p+1}{2}$ for every prime p besides $2$.