Suppose for polynomials f, g in $\mathbb{Q}[X]$ it holds that
$$\gcd(f(X),g(X))=d(X)$$
What we also want to now prove is that for $a \in \mathbb{Q}$: $$\gcd(f(X+a),g(X+a))=d(X+a)$$
So the question is asking that if we replace $X$ by $X+a$, the new gcd is the old one evaluated at $X+a$. I was thinking that we can always write: $$ \alpha(X) f(X)+ \beta(X) G(X) =d(X)$$ For polynomials $\alpha$, $\beta$, but I don't see how I could use this. If I would just treat $d(X)$ as a function now and shift by $a$ to the left, the proof would immediately follow, but this feels a bit like cheating, is this statement valid?
I would then finish like:
If we now treat $d(X)$ as a function, we shift the function $a$ to the left and get: $$d(X+a)=\alpha(X+a) f(X+a)+ \beta(X+a) g(X+a) .$$ Since we still have $\alpha(X+a), \beta(X+a) \in \mathbb{Q}[X]$ this statement is equivalent to: $$\gcd(f(X+a),g(X+a))=d(X+a) .$$ as desired $\square$.
Hint $ $ shifts $\,f\mapsto \bar f$ are automorphisms so preserve divisibility $\ cd=a\iff \bar c \bar d = \bar a,\,$ so gcds
$$ c\mid (a,b)\iff c\mid a,b\iff \bar c\mid \bar a,\bar b\iff \bar c\mid (\bar a ,\bar b)$$