My question is this: for which value of $p$ does this improper integral converge?
$$\int_0^1 x^p(x+1)\log x \ dx $$
I know from a previous exercise that $$\int_0^1 x^p\log x \ dx $$ converges for $p > -1$.
So for this integral
$$\int_0^1 x^p(x+1)\log x \ dx $$
I found $$x^p(x+1)\log x = x^{p+1}\log x \ + x^p\log x$$
and $$x^{p+1}\log x \ + x^p\log x \le 2x^{p+1}\log x$$
and $$2x^{p+1}\log x \asymp x^{p+1}\log x$$
and I assume from the previous exercise that the integral must converge for $p > -2$ and since the polynomial beats the log with $x$ from $0$ to $1$ for values of $p > -2$.
Is my procedure right?
Note that for any $x\in(0,1)$, $x^{p}\ln x<0$ and $1<x+1<2$, so $x^{p}\ln x>x^{p}(x+1)\ln x>2x^{p}\ln x$. Therefore, for any $\delta\in(0,1)$, we have that $\int_{\delta}^{1}x^{p}\ln x\,dx\geq\int_{\delta}^{1}x^{p}(x+1)\ln x\,dx\geq2\int_{\delta}^{1}x^{p}\ln x\,dx$. (Actually we have strict inequality. However, we do not need this fact.)
Now, we can show that $\lim_{\delta\rightarrow0+}\int_{\delta}^{1}x^{p}\ln x\,dx$ exists iff $\lim_{\delta\rightarrow0+}\int_{\delta}^{1}x^{p}(x+1)\ln x\,dx$ exists.