Given $$X^{\complement} \cap Z^{\complement} \subseteq Y^{\complement} \cap Z^{\complement},$$ applying De Morgan's laws, it changes to $$ (X \cup Z)^{\complement} \subseteq (Y \cup Z)^{\complement}.$$ If I am not mistaken, $A^{\complement} \subseteq B^{\complement} \implies B \subseteq A$. Using this, $$ Y \cup Z \subseteq X \cup Z.$$ Since it has been given that $Y \subseteq X$, the above statement should naturally follow.
This question was taken from the 2018 entrance test for PGDBA. The above reasoning was what I used to mark the claim as true. Please validate the line reasoning.
Yes, it is correct. Only you have to be carefull about the order of the sentences:
Since $Y \subseteq X$ then for each $Z$ we have: $$ Y \cup Z \subseteq X \cup Z.$$
so $$ (X \cup Z)^{\complement} \subseteq (Y \cup Z)^{\complement}$$ Now apply de Morgan and thus conclusion.