Let $L$ be a first-order language with the predicate symbol $R$, and let $x,y$ be variables in $L$.
I want to show that
$\forall x \forall y R(x,y) \vdash R(y,x)$
Where $\vdash$ means formally prove.
I am using Enderton's A Mathematical Introduction to Logic, so I am using his deductive system. I am allowed to use any theorem to show that there is a formal derivation, except for the completeness theorem.
The best I can do is $\forall x \forall y R(x,y) \vdash R(z,y)$
where $z$ is a variable distinct from $x$ and $y$. I have been trying for hours, please help. Note that I am not actually looking for a formal proof, I just need to show that one exists.
Ref to :
The first step is :
The second step is :
Then we use Generalization Theorem [page 117] to get :
and finally we apply again Axiom.2 to have :
Axiom.2 is :