I'm used to proving universal quantification claims (i.e. $\forall n \in \mathbb{N}, [P(n) \rightarrow Q(n)]$) by: Assuming an arbitrary number in the naturals, assuming the antecdent $P(n)$, doing the mechanical portion of the proof to get $Q(n)$, conclude. However, how do I go about proving statements of the form:
$$\forall n \in \mathbb{N}, P(n) \rightarrow \forall n \in \mathbb{N}, Q(n)$$
I would be very greatful if someone could provide an explanation on how to prove such a statement. Thank you!
Just two of several possibilities...
Direct proof:
Suppose $\forall n \in \mathbb{N}: P(n)$
Suppose $x\in \mathbb{N}$
Prove $Q(x)$
Conclusion: $\forall n \in \mathbb{N}: Q(n)$
Conclusion: $\forall n \in \mathbb{N}: P(n) \rightarrow \forall n \in \mathbb{N}: Q(n)$
Indirect proof by contradiction:
Suppose $\forall n \in \mathbb{N}: P(n)$
Suppose that $x\in \mathbb{N}\land\neg Q(x)$
Obtain a contradiction of the form $A\land\neg A$, or $A\iff\neg A$
Conclusion: $\neg \exists n\in\mathbb{N}: \neg Q(n)$, or equivalently, $\forall n\in\mathbb{N}: Q(n)$
Conclusion: $\forall n \in \mathbb{N}: P(n) \rightarrow \forall n \in \mathbb{N}: Q(n)$