I'm reading the proof for the formula for sum of divisors (http://planetmath.org/formulaforsumofdivisors), and get stuck in this one step. I understand that, if $n$ is a positive integer whose factorization into prime factors is $$n = \prod_{i=1}^k p_i^{m_i}$$ then we can express a divisor $d$ of $n$ as $$d = \prod_{i=1}^k p_i^{\mu_i}, where \ 0 \leq \mu_i \leq m_i $$ But how can we then go from "the sum over all divisors becomes the sum over all possible choices for the $\mu_i$'s" to this formula? $$\sum_{d|n} d = \sum_{0 \leq \mu_i \leq m_i} \prod p_i^{\mu_i}$$
2026-04-30 04:00:46.1777521646
Formula for sum of divisors
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The equation $\, d \!=\! \prod_{i=1}^k p_i^{\mu_i}, \,$ where $\, 0 \!\leq\! \mu_i \!\leq\! m_i \,$ gives us a bijection between divisors $\,d\,$ of $\,n\,$ and tuples $\, \mu_i \,$ that satisfy $\, 0 \!\leq\! \mu_i \!\leq\! m_i. \,$ Thus $\, \sum_{d|n} f(d) \,$ uniquely corresponds to $\, \sum_{0 \!\leq\! \mu_i \!\leq\! m_i} f(\prod p_i^{\mu_i}). \,$