$$f(x)=\pi-x \qquad x \in [0,2 \pi[$$
$$a_0=\frac{1}{\pi} \ \int_0^{2 \pi}f(x) \ dx=\frac{1}{\pi} \ \int_0^{2 \pi} (\pi-x) \ dx=0$$
$$a_n=\frac{1}{\pi} \ \int_0^{2 \pi} \cos(nx) \ dx=\frac{1}{\pi} \ \int_0^{2 \pi}(\pi \ \cos(nx)-x \ \cos(nx)) \ dx=$$ $$\frac{1}{\pi} \ \Big( \ \Big[\frac{\pi}{n} \ \sin(nx) \Big]_0^{2 \pi}-\Big[\frac{x}{n} \ \sin(nx)+\frac{1}{n^2} \ \cos(nx) \Big]_0^{2 \pi} \Big)=0 $$
$$b_n=\frac{1}{\pi} \ \Big( \ \Big[\ -\frac{\pi}{n} \ \cos(nx) \Big]_0^{2 \pi}-\Big[-\frac{x}{n} \ \cos(nx)+\frac{1}{n^2} \ \sin(nx) \Big]_0^{2 \pi} \Big)=\frac{2}{n}$$
$$f(x)=2 \sum_{n=1}^{+\infty} \frac{1}{n} \ \sin(nx)$$
Is it correct?
Slight errors: $$ \begin{align} % a_{0} &= \frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi }^{\pi } f(x) \, dx = 2\pi \\[5pt] % b_{k} &= \frac{1}{\pi } \int_{-\pi }^{\pi } f(x) \sin (k x) \, dx = (-1)^k \frac{2}{k \pi} % \end{align} $$ The decay of the amplitudes is linear:
The series expansion looks like $$ \pi - x = \pi - 2 \sin (x) + \sin (2x) - \frac{2}{3} \sin (3x) + \frac{1}{2} \sin \left( 4x \right) - \dots $$
Convergence sequence: