can someone help me understand where the 1/T normalising factor goes when taking the limit of the Fourier series to turn into a Fourier transform.
There exists a derivation from Fourier series to transform but what they do in it is derive the inverse Fourier transform and they take the Fourier transform as the definition.
I cant find anyone showing the Fourier transform as a direct consequence of extending the periodicity to infinity and the "disappearance" of the normalising 1/T factor