For a fixed $z\in \mathbb{C}\setminus\mathbb{R}$, define the function \begin{align*} C:\mathbb{R}&\to\mathbb{C} \\ x&\mapsto \frac{1}{2\pi i(x-z)} \end{align*}
I have already shown that $C(x)\in L^2(\mathbb{R})$, and now I am trying to compute the Fourier transform of $C$
$$\mathcal{F}[C(x)](p):=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{\mathbb{R}}e^{-ipx}C(x)dx$$ and it seems hard.. I think it will probably need to be in the sense of a principle value, but I'm a bit stuck on how to proceed.
The main idea of the following is the fact that the antiderivative of $t\mapsto e^{-izt}$ is equal ${-1\over iz}e^{-izt}$ for nonreal $z.$
For ${\rm Im}\,z>0$ consider the function $$f_z(p)=\begin{cases} e^{-izp} & p\le 0\\ 0 & p>0\end{cases}$$ The function $f_z$ is in $L^1\cap L^2.$ The inverse Fourier transform of $f_z$ is equal $$\mathcal{F}^{-1}(f_z)(x)={1\over \sqrt{2\pi}}\int\limits_{-\infty}^0e^{-izp}e^{ipx}\,dp={1\over \sqrt{2\pi}}{1\over i(x-z) }$$ Similarly for ${\rm Im}\,z<0$ and $$f_z(p)=\begin{cases} e^{-izp} & p\ge 0\\ 0 & p<0\end{cases}$$ we get $$\mathcal{F}^{-1}(f_z)(x)=-{1\over \sqrt{2\pi}}{1\over i(x-z) } $$ As $(\mathcal{F}\circ \mathcal{F}^{-1})(f_z)=f_z,$ we get $\mathcal{F}(g_z)=f_z,$ where $g_z(x) =\sqrt{2\pi}\,(2\pi i)^{-1}(x-z)^{-1}.$