Suppose that a sequence $\{a_n\}_{n\geqslant 0}$ satisfies $$\frac{a_{m+n}+a_{|m-n|}}{2}\leqslant a_m+a_n$$
for all non-negative integers $m,n$. Show that $\frac{a_n}{n^2}$ either converges or diverges to $-\infty$ as $n\to\infty$.
Solution:
For an arbitrarily fixed positive integer $k$ we put $n=qk+r$ with $0\leqslant r<k$. Put $c_l=a_{kl+r}$ for brevity. Adding $m-1$ inequalities
$c_{l+1}+c_{l-1}\leqslant 2(c_l+a_k)$
for $l=1,...,m-1$ one after another, we get
$c_0+c_m\leqslant c_1+c_{m-1}+2(m-1)a_k$.
Adding the above inequalities for $m=2,...,M$, we thus obtain
$$c_M\leqslant Mc_1-(M-1)c_0+M(M-1)a_k$$.
Therefore
$\limsup_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_n}{n^2}\leqslant\frac{a_k}{k^2}$
and the sequence $\frac{a_n}{n^2}$ is bounded above. Since $k$ is arbitrary, we conclude that $\limsup_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_n}{n^2}\leqslant inf_{k\leqslant 1}\frac{a_k}{k^2}\leqslant \liminf_{k\to\infty}\frac{a_k}{k^2}$
which completes the proof.
Question:
I have already asked a question about this proof. However as I went through I found myself with another doubt.
How does the author infers form this inequality $c_M\leqslant Mc_1-(M-1)c_0+M(M-1)a_k$ the following inequality $\limsup_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_n}{n^2}\leqslant\frac{a_k}{k^2}$?
Thanks in advance!
At this point, it is probably better to stick with write $q$ instead of $M$, so starting with $$a_n=c_q\leq qc_1 - (q-1)c_0 + q(q-1) a_k$$ dividing by $n^2$, you get $$ \frac{a_n}{n^2} \leq \frac{q}{n^2} c_1 - \frac{q-1}{n^2} c_0 + \frac{q(q-1)}{(kq+r)^2} a_k$$ So taking limsup, we get $$\limsup_{n=kq+r\to\infty} \frac{a_n}{n^2} \leq \frac{a_k}{k^2}$$ since the other two terms have order $n$ numerator but $n^2$ in denominator, so vanish in the limit. But this holds true for all possible remainder $r=0,1,\dots,k-1$, so we can finally drop the dependence on $r$ and just write $$\limsup_{n\to\infty} \frac{a_n}{n^2} \leq \frac{a_k}{k^2}$$