I want to prove that $$\frac{(x-y)(x-z)}{x^2}+\frac{(y-x)(y-z)}{y^2}+\frac{(z-x)(z-y)}{z^2}\geq 0$$ for positive numbers $x,y,z$. I don't know how to even begin. I must say I'm not 100% certain the inequality always holds.
I tried the sort of factoring involved in proving schur's inequality, but it doesn't seem to work here. I also tried to distribute the denominators to obtain terms of form (1-y/x)(1-z/x) and then maybe substituting x/y=a, y/z=b, z/x=a etc
After replacing $x$ on $\frac{1}{x}$ and similar we need to prove that $$\sum_{cyc}x(x-y)(x-z)\geq0,$$ which is Schur.