Fractional index fallacy

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According to index laws, $(a^b)^c=a^{b\cdot c}=(a^c)^b$

However, if for example we have $a=-1, b=4, c=1/2$, then we get the equation:

$$((-1)^4)^{1/2}=(-1)^2=((-1)^{1/2})^4$$

The first equation is equal to $1$, however, the last one is undefined. How is this possible?

P.S. I'm sorry the formatting of the indexes is not ideal, I'm not sure how to do it properly

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Attention the exponent law you give is only true under certain assumptions. A few example:

  • If $a \in \mathbb R$ and $b,c \in \mathbb Z$ then $a^{bc} = (a^b)^c$

  • If $a \in \mathbb R$, $a > 0$ and $b,c \in \mathbb{R}$ then $a^{bc} = (a^b)^c$

But $a^{bc} = (a^b)^c$ is not always true for $a,b,c \in \mathbb{R}$... In particular if $a<0$ and $b$ or $c$ is not an integer.