Free variable in a propositional logic

56 Views Asked by At

One of my friends insists that this propositional logic makes sense $$\forall x[\forall y \forall z L(y,z) \to L(x,y)]$$ However, I feel like y at the back is a free variable.
I haven't touched on this topic for a while now and wasn't able to find an answer. I'm seeking guidance on this issue.
Thank you!