I have some trouble understanding Freges argument in particular as presented here, https://stanford.library.sydney.edu.au/entries/platonism-mathematics/#FreArgForExi
In particular the first premise i.e
"The singular terms of the language of mathematics purport to refer to mathematical objects, and its first-order quantifiers purport to range over such objects"
If we refer to our language how is then the object that we introduce independent of us as the "intelligent" agents, which Platonism suggests it should be?
First comment : here "platonic" must be understood in a broad sense, because Plato asserted the "real" existence of non-sensible objects : the Forms (or Ideas).
Frege has been defined a "platonist" because he asserted that numbers are real non-sensible objects, i.e. abstract objects.
Having said that, "singular terms" are "names" for numbers : zero, one, two, etc. According to Frege, they are real names, denoting objects : the natural numbers.
Thus, the quantifier of a formula like $∀n(n ≥ 0)$ must be interpreted - using the now standard semantics for first-order languge - as ranging over a domain of objects. These objects are the numbers.
But Plato's Forms are more than "abstract objects" :
Some of these characteristics of platonic Forms can be predicated also of numbers, but not all of them.