In the Pairing for Beginners book, I read:
Frobenius endomorphism $\pi$ for $E$:
- $\pi : E \rightarrow E, (x, y) \mapsto (x^q,y^q)$
- Note: $\pi$ maps any point $E(\overline{\mathbb{F}}_q)$ to $E(\overline{\mathbb{F}}_q)$, but the set of points fixed by $\pi$ is exactly the group $E(\mathbb{F}_q)$.
Why is the set of points $\#E(\mathbb{F}_q)$ ?
You can try with $E : y^2 = x^3-x-2$ over $\Bbb{F}_5$ in http://magma.maths.usyd.edu.au/calc/
Don't forget to add the point at $\infty$ to obtain a group, equivalently look at