Is there function $f$ from $L^2[0,1]$ such that $\int \limits_0^1 f(x)g(x)dx = g(0)$, where $g$ is:
a) Any polynomial of degree $\leq n$?
b) Any polynomial of any degree?
I know that the answer for b) is no: if $f$ is such function, then $xf(x)$ is orthoganal to any polynomial and thus orthogonal to any element of $L^2[0, 1]$. Therefore $f = [0]$.
I also understand that we can get a polynomial, which is orthoganal to $\{x, \dots, x^n\}$, using Gram–Schmidt process from $x$ to $x^{n+1}$. The problem is that I can't prove that such element is not orthoganal to $1$.
Thanks!
This is easy if you are allowed to use some Functional Analysis. Let $M_n$ be the subspace of $L^{2}$ consisting of polynomials with degree at most $n$. Then $p \to p(0)$ is a linear map, hence continuous too: any linear map on a finite dimensional space is continuous. By Hahn Banach Theorem there is a continuous linear functional on $L^{2}$ which extends this and any continuous linear functional on $L^{2}$ is of the type $g \to \int fg$ for some $f \in L^{2}$.