Suppose $U$ is a bounded domain in $\mathbb{R}^n$ and $u \in L^1(U)$ has the property that $$\int_{U}u\phi=0 $$ for all $\phi \in C_{c}^{\infty}(U)$ which satisfy $\int \phi = 0$. I'd like to show that $u = \bar{u}:= \frac{1}{|U|}\int_{U}u$ almost everywhere. Here was my initial approach. We have $$\int(u-\bar{u})^2 = \int u(u-\bar{u}) - \int \bar{u}(u-\bar{u}) = \int u(u-\bar{u}) .$$ Now I'm tempted to approximate $u-\bar{u}$ by smooth compactly supported mollifiers and apply something like the dominated convergence theorem to conclude that the last integral on the line above vanishes, but no straightforward argument is coming to mind. I'd appreciate if someone could help me out here.
2026-04-12 18:56:04.1776020164
Function which integrates to $0$ against test functions with mean $0$ is constant almost everywhere.
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Note that every derivative $\partial_i \phi$ of a $C^\infty_c (U)$ function $\phi$ is also in $C^\infty_c(U)$ and has $\int_U\partial_i \phi=0$. So the given condition implies that $u$ is weakly differentiable with weak gradient $\nabla u =0$ (and therefore $u\in W^{1,1}$). Now apply Weak derivatives equals zero (quoting the answer of Harald Hanche-Olsen):
Also, the comment of Caleb Nastasi in Zero weak gradient implies almost everywhere constant links to https://www.dpmms.cam.ac.uk/~cmw50/PDEEx2Sols.pdf with the following more detailed solution: