I am reading lecture notes of Riemann surfaces and encountering something I cannot understand.
As is shown in Example 4.5, the fundamental group of $\mathbb C^*$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb Z$. However, it implies that $\mathbb C^*$ is not simply connected, which contradicts
$$\pi_1(S^2)=\{0\}.$$
But I can't see where I go wrong. Any comments is appreciated:)


Your question was answered in the comments, but let me give an offcial answer to clear it from the "unanswered" queue.
The space $\mathbb C^*$ does not denote the Riemann sphere (which is homeomorphic to $S^2$), but the punctured complex plane $\mathbb C \setminus \{0\}$. This is homotopy equivalent to $S^1$, hence $\pi_1(\mathbb C^*) \cong \mathbb Z$.
Notation is explained in the linked paper:
Section Notation on page ii :
Page 1 :
But even without these explicit definitions it is clear from the context that $\mathbb C^*$ must denote the punctured complex plane. The author considers the universal covering $\exp : \mathbb C \to \mathbb C^*$. Coverings are surjective by definiton, and the image $\exp(\mathbb C)$ is precisely the punctured complex plane.