I'm trying to calculate the future value of a $1000 lump sum payment at the end of 12 years at 9% annual interest. I used this formula: FVn = PV * (1+r)^n.
I got this result: $2812.66 = 1000 * (1+.09)^12.
But the example I'm working from says the FV is $2,932.84. After some tinkering I realized that the example used the monthly rate and 144 periods. Why is the result different and which is correct?
You can use the binomial theorem to see that a monthly compounded lump sum is larger than a yearly compounded one. We can compare one year.
$$\left(1+\frac{i}{12}\right)^{12}=\sum_{k=0}^{12} \binom{12}{k}\cdot \left(\frac{i}{12}\right)^k\cdot 1^{12-k} $$
The first two summands ($k=0,1$) are
$\sum_{k=0}^{12} \binom{12}{k}\cdot \left(\frac{i}{12}\right)^k\cdot 1^{12-k}=1+12\cdot \left(\frac{i}{12}\right)^1\cdot 1^{11}+\dots=1+i+\ldots$
It can be seen that the sum of the first two summands already equals $1+i$. But if we regard the other $11$ summands then a monthly compounded lump sum is always greater than a yearly compounded, if $i>0$.
$$\left(1+\frac{i}{12}\right)^{12}>1+i$$