$G$ be a group and $H,K$ are two normal subgroups of $G$, then $H\cong K$ if and only if $G/H\cong G/K$ (True/False)

Question

I know that $H\cong K$ may not imply $G/H\cong G/K$ as a counter-example take $G=\Bbb{Z}$, $H=2\Bbb{Z}$ and $K=3\Bbb{Z}$, $G/H=\Bbb{Z}_2\ncong\Bbb{Z}_3=G/K$.
But I cannot get whether $G/H\cong G/K$ implies $H\cong K$.
Can anybody help me in this regard? Thanks for the assistance in advance.