2014 card players sit around a big table. One of the players begins with 2014 cards on his hand, and the other have none. The rules for the game are:
Every minute shall every player, who has 2 cards or more, give one card to the persons next to him.
The game is finished when everybody has exactly one card.
I imagine that the table has a form as a rectangle. At the end of the table there sits one person - one of them would be the person with 2014 cards. At the other sides there will be 1006 persons.

I discovered that by $t=1$, $t=3$, $t=6$, $t=10$, $t=15$, $t=\frac{n(n+1)}{2}$
that will be $n$ persons on each side of the tables with one card, and the persons with most cards would have $2014-2n$ cards. Because there are 1006 persons of each side of the table (the long side) they would have 1 cards after $t=\frac{1006(1006+1)}{2}=506521$ minuts. Then we have
But if that is true then they ever will have one card each, because there always will be one person with 2 cards. Is that correct?
Yes, the game will never finish.
Consider the number of cards the even-numbered players have. At the start it's zero, and in the end it ought to be 1007. But we always pass an even number of cards between the even- and odd-numbered players.
Hence it can never finish.