Any clues on how to show/prove that the following result holds when evaluating this Gaussian integral would be greatly appreciated ...
$$\int\limits_\mathbb{R}e^{-\lambda x^{2}} x^2 dx = (\frac{\pi}{4\lambda^3})^\frac{1}{2}$$
I'm doing this in the context of an exercise where I'm asked to derive the normal gaussian distribution based on a maximum entropy procedure.
If the bounds on the integral were the positive real line, i.e. $\int\limits_{0}^\infty e^{-\lambda x^{2}} x^2 dx $ , I see how I could integrate this by parts, taking $u=x$ and $dv= e^{-\lambda x} x dx$. But when I integrate by parts and evaluate on the whole real line the result is not defined (giving $\infty$ on the $uv$ term).
Thanks!
Let $I(\lambda)= \int_\mathbb{R}e^{-\lambda x^{2}}dx $. Then,
$$I^2 (\lambda)= \int_\mathbb{R^2}e^{-\lambda (x^{2}+y^{2})}\>dxdy = 2\pi \int_0^\infty e^{-\lambda r^2}rdr = \frac\pi{\lambda}$$
which leads to $I(\lambda) = \sqrt{ \frac\pi{\lambda} }$ and
$$\int_\mathbb{R}e^{-\lambda x^{2}} x^2 dx = -\frac{dI(\lambda)}{d\lambda}=\left(\frac{\pi}{4\lambda^3}\right)^\frac{1}{2}$$