Can someone tell how to do this? I know the answer when there is no additional 1 in it. But with +1, I have no clue. Can someone give insights? I tried using $\gcd(a,b) = \gcd(a, b-a)$ but could not get anywhere. Thanks in advance
2026-03-25 09:22:42.1774430562
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$\gcd (2016!+1, 2015!+1)$
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Since
$$2016!+1=2016(2015!+1)-2015,$$
Euclid's algorithm yields
$$\gcd(2016!+1,2015!+1)=\gcd(2015!+1,2015)=1$$
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$$\gcd(2016!+1, 2015!+1) = \gcd(2016!+1 - 2016(2015!+1), 2015!+1) \\= \gcd(2015, 2015!+1) = 1$$
So, if integer $d(>0)$ divides both,
$d$ must divide $2016!-2015!=2015!(2016-1)$
Now $(d,2015\cdot2015!)$
divides $(2015!+1,2015\cdot2015!)=1$